Through the use of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) the recipient’s identity can be positively verified by the sender.
The sender of the message knows he is using a Public Key that belongs to a specific user.
He can validate through the Certification Authority (CA) that a public key is in fact the valid public key of the receiver and the receiver is really who he claims to be. By using the public key of the recipient, only the recipient using the matching private key will be able to decrypt the message. When you wish to achieve confidentiality, you encrypt the message with the recipient public key.
If the sender would wish to prove to the recipient that he is really who he claims to be then the sender would apply a digital signature on the message before encrypting it with the public key of the receiver. This would provide Confidentiality and Authenticity of the message.
A PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) enables users of an insecure public network, such as the
Internet, to securely and privately exchange data through the use of public key-pairs that are obtained and shared through a trusted authority, usually referred to as a Certificate
Authority.
The PKI provides for digital certificates that can vouch for the identity of individuals or organizations, and for directory services that can store, and when necessary, revoke those digital certificates. A PKI is the underlying technology that addresses the issue of trust in a normally untrusted environment.
The following answers are incorrect:
The sender and recipient have reached a mutual agreement on the encryption key exchange that they will use. Is incorrect because through the use of Public Key
Infrastructure (PKI), the parties do not have to have a mutual agreement. They have a trusted 3rd party Certificate Authority to perform the verification of the sender.
The channels through which the information flows are secure. Is incorrect because the use of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) does nothing to secure the channels.
The sender of the message is the only other person with access to the recipient’s private key. Is incorrect because the sender does not have access to the recipient’s private key though Public Key Infrastructure (PKI).
Reference(s) used for this question:
OIG CBK Cryptography (pages 253 – 254)

*Answer “Senior officials to post performance bonds for their actions” is a distracter and is not part of the prudent man rule.
* Answer “Senior officials to guarantee that all precautions have been taken and that no breaches of security can occur” is incorrect because it is not possible to guarantee that breaches of security can never occur.
* Answer “Senior officials to follow specified government standards” is incorrect because the prudent man rule does not refer to a specific government standard but relates to what other prudent persons would do.

IT auditors determine whether systems are in compliance with the security policies, procedures, standards, baselines, designs, architectures, management direction and other requirements” and “provide top company management with an independent view of the controls that have been designed and their effectiveness.”
“Information systems security professionals” is incorrect. Security professionals develop the security policies and supporting baselines, etc.
“Data owners” is incorrect. Data owners have overall responsibility for information assets and assign the appropriate classification for the asset as well as ensure that the asset is protected with the proper controls.
“Data custodians” is incorrect. Data custodians care for an information asset on behalf of the data owner.
References;
CBK, pp. 38 – 42.
AIO3. pp. 99 – 104

As per FDA data should be attributable, original, accurate, contemporaneous and
legible. In an automated system attributability could be achieved by a computer system designed
to identify individuals responsible for any input.
Source: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration,
Guidance for Industry – Computerized Systems Used in Clinical Trials, April 1999, page 1.

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To develop a mission statement is not part of the BIA process.
The eight BIA Steps are listed below:
1. Select individuals to interview for data gathering.
2. Create data-gathering techniques (surveys, questionnaires, qualitative and quantitative approaches).
3. Identify the company’s critical business functions.
4. Identify the resources these functions depend upon.
5. Calculate how long these functions can survive without these resources.
6. Identify vulnerabilities and threats to these functions.
7. Calculate the risk for each different business function.
8. Document findings and report them to management.
Incorrect Answers:
A: To calculate the risk for each different business function is step seven in the BIA process.
B: Identifying the company’s critical business functions is step three in the BIA process.
C: To calculate how long these functions can survive without these resources is step five in the BIA process.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, 2013, p. 908

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security testing tests all security mechanisms and features within a system to determine the level of protection they provide. Security testing can include authorization testing, penetration testing, formal design and implementation verification, and functional testing.
Authorization testing is the process of determining that a requester is allowed to receive a service or perform an operation. Access control is an example of authorization.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Recovery testing is the activity of testing how well an application is able to recover from crashes, hardware failures and other similar problems. Recovery testing does not test access control and does not find any security holes.
C: Stress testing is a form of deliberately intense or thorough testing used to determine the stability of a given system or entity. It involves testing beyond normal operational capacity, often to a breaking point, in order to observe the results. Stress testing does not test access control and does not find any security holes.
D: Interface testing can be used to check the handling of data passed between various units, or subsystem components, beyond full integration testing between those units. Interface testing does not test access control and does not find any security holes.
References:
Conrad, Eric, Seth Misenar and Joshua Feldman, CISSP Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Syngress, Waltham,
2012, p. 14

Wrong: Both A and B could be the result of a man-in-the-middle attack, but neither are man-in-the-middle attacks. For example someone who uses a packet capturing device, such as a “sniffer” to obtain an unencrypted user ID and password to one or more PCs or servers and then the platforms to launch a DOS attach or create a Buffer Overflow by exploiting an application flaw or OS Vulnerability.

The correct answer is “Accountability of responsible individuals”. Accountability is holding individuals responsible for their actions. The other options are the three goals of
integrity.

SLIP, Serial Line IP, is a currently a de facto standard, commonly used for point-to-point serial connections running TCP/IP.
Reference: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc1055

Halon is a compound consisting of bromine, fluorine, and carbon. Halons are used as fire extinguishing agents, both in built-in systems and in handheld portable fire extinguishers. Halon production in the U.S. ended on December 31, 1993, because they contribute to ozone depletion. Bromine being part of Halon is not a safe replacement for
Halon.
The following are some of the EPA-approved replacements for halon:
Several substitutes have been approved by the SNAP program that may be considered as potential candidates for specific use conditions as cited in 40 CFR 82 Appendix A to
Subpart G, Substitutes Subject to Use Restrictions and Unacceptable Substitutes. It should be noted that the following substitutions are merely comments on usage and not conditions. For example, the Army has considered the use of HFC-125 in the crew compartments of its ground combat vehicles. Also, the Army has installed IG-541 in normally occupied areas. The following substitutes are listed:
Total Flooding Agents Acceptable Substitutes
Water Mist Systems using Potable or Natural Sea Water
[Foam] A (formerly identified as Water Mist Surfactant Blend A) This agent is not a clean agent, but is a low-density, short duration foam.
Carbon Dioxide (Must meet NFPA 12 and OSHA 1910.162(b)5 requirements
Water Sprinklers
Total Flooding Agents Substitutes Acceptable Subject To Use Conditions
Normally Occupied Areas
C4F10 (PFC-410 or CEA-410)
C3F8 (PFC-218 or CEA-308)
HCFC Blend A (NAF S-III)
HFC-23 (FE 13)
HFC-227ea (FM 200)
IG-01 (Argon)
IG-55 (Aragonite)
HFC-125
HFC-134a
Normally Unoccupied Areas
Powdered Aerosol C
CF3I
HCFC-22
HCFC-124
HFC-125
HFC-134a
Gelled Halocarbon/Dry Chem. Suspension (PGA)
Inert Gas/Powdered Aerosol Blend (FS 0140)
IG-541 (Inergen)
Unacceptable Substitutes
HFC-32
The following were incorrect answers:
The following are all safe replacement for Halon:
FE-13 is an Halon replacement (Halon 1301) in total flooding and inerting applications where its low toxicity provides for improved safety margins, the protected spaces are large, the cylinder storage area is remote from the protected space, or where the temperatures are likely to go below 0C (32F). Of the clean agents available, DuPont FE-13 has the lowest toxicity and is the safest for protecting areas where people are present. DuPont
FE-13 provides the ultimate in human safety while protecting high-value assets and business continuity with a clean agent.
DuPont FE-13 is:
safe for people
a clean agent that does not leave a residue
electrically nonconductive and noncorrosive
an environmentally preferred alternative to Halon with zero ozone depletion potential (ODP)
FM-200 is a colorless, liquefied compressed gas. It is stored as a liquid and dispensed into the hazard as a colorless, electrically non-conductive vapor that is clear and does not obscure vision. It leaves no residue and has acceptable toxicity for use in occupied spaces at design concentration. FM-200 does not displace oxygen and, therefore, is safe for use in occupied spaces without fear of oxygen deprivation.
INERGEN is a blend of inert atmospheric gases that contains 52% nitrogen, 40% argon,
8% carbon dioxide, used for fire suppression system agent. It is considered a clean agent for use in gaseous fire suppression applications. Inergen does not contain halocarbons, and has no ozone depletion potential. It is non-toxic. Inergen is used at design concentrations of 35-50% to lower the concentration of oxygen to a point that cannot support combustion, but still safe for humans.
Reference(s) used for this quesiton:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third
Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 25616-25620). Auerbach Publications. Kindle
Edition.
and
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (pp. 473-474).
McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
and
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third
Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 25623-25626). Auerbach Publications. Kindle
Edition.
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inergen
and
http://www.p2sustainabilitylibrary.mil/P2_Opportunity_Handbook/3_III_2.html

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internal users access the internet will create outbound packets with external IP addresses. These legit packets should not be dropped.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Firewalls do not drop packet based on routing options.
B: Firewalls do not drop packet based on routing protocol information.
C: Inbound packets should have an external source address. If the inbound packet has an internal source address it must be dropped.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, p. 630

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Interference interrupts the flow of an electrical current, and fluctuations can actually deliver a different level of voltage than what was expected. Each fluctuation can be damaging to devices and people.
The following explains the different types of voltage fluctuations possible with electric power:
Power excess:
Spike Momentary high voltage

Surge Prolonged high voltage

Power loss:
Fault Momentary power outage

Blackout Prolonged, complete loss of electric power

Power degradation:
Sag/dip Momentary low-voltage condition, from one cycle to a few seconds

Brownout Prolonged power supply that is below normal voltage

In-rush current Initial surge of current required to start a load

Incorrect Answers:
B: A blackout is a prolonged complete loss of power, not a momentary high voltage. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.
C: A surge is prolonged high voltage, not a momentary high voltage. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.
D: A fault is a momentary power outage, not a momentary high voltage. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, 2013, pp. 462-463

Options B, C and D are all Denial of Service attacks. El Gamal is the
Diffie-Hellman key exchange algorithm and is usually described as an active exchange of keys by two parties. The buffer overflow attack objective is consume the available memory for the TCP/IP protocol stack to make the machine crash.
Teardrop and Smurf are DoS attacks that make use of spoofing.

The main issue with RAID Level 1 is that the one-for-one ratio is very expensive-resulting in the highest cost per megabyte of data capacity. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 65.